One question, Sorin Markov, the letter says his first skill says; +2: Sorin Markov deals 2 damage to target creature or player and you gain 2 life. Can you do those 2 damage to a planeswalker?
Although Sorin's first ability can target only a "creature or player" (C.R. 114.1c), you can still cause damage to a planeswalker with that ability, under certain conditions.
More specifically, when Sorin's first ability resolves, if you targeted an opponent and you control Sorin, you can have Sorin deal 2 damage to a planeswalker that player controls instead of that player (C.R. 306.7).
Let me explain it simply. Assume you control Sorin Markov and your opponent controls Chandra Nalaar, and no other players are in the game.
You activate Sorin's first ability and target your opponent (C.R. 602.2, 602.2b, 601.2c). All players pass in a row. The ability resolves and Sorin would deal 2 damage to your opponent (C.R. 116.4, 608.2c). You can now decide to have Sorin deal 2 damage to Chandra instead of to your opponent (C.R. 306.7).
Alternatively, you can activate Sorin's first ability and say that Sorin will deal 2 damage to Chandra (thus declaring a "shortcut"). If your opponent accepts this, Sorin will deal 2 damage to Chandra — the same result as the one given earlier (C.R. 719.2a-c). See also this thread.
Ok, now if i cast a spell like lighting bolt or an abilily like nivmizzet wich targets a player and deals damage to a player, it does target a planeswalker instead if that player controls one planeswalker?
Ok, now if i cast a spell like lighting bolt or an abilily like nivmizzet wich targets a player and deals damage to a player, it does target a planeswalker instead if that player controls one planeswalker?
It does not *target* that planeswalker, no, at least not until the rules change that's coming with the Dominaria set comes into effect (I won't get into that now, I assume your question to be in the here and now). You have a choice, when the Lightning Bolt resolves and its 3 damage would be dealt to the opponent, for the 3 damage to *instead* be dealt to one planeswalker that opponent controls. As the rules are now, the planeswalker never becomes the target, but that redirection effect happens after anything about targeting would matter.
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I'm a former judge (lapsed), who keeps up to date on rules and policy. Keep in mind that judges' answers aren't necessarily more valid than those of people who aren't judges; what matters is we can quote the rules to back up our answers. When in doubt, ask for such quotes.
Yes, you could hurt a planeswalker. By targeting the player who controls the planeswalker, and then redirecting the damage to the planeswalker when the spell or ability resolves.
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I'm a former judge (lapsed), who keeps up to date on rules and policy. Keep in mind that judges' answers aren't necessarily more valid than those of people who aren't judges; what matters is we can quote the rules to back up our answers. When in doubt, ask for such quotes.
ok, I already understood that I can hurt a planeswalker by certain conditions, but my opponent can do this, an example: I activate the first ability of Sorin Markov, and I target a player, but I say that instead of giving him the 2 points of damage to him, I do the damage to a planeswalker that he controls, but my doubt is that he can do or say that he refuses to sorin to do the damage to planeswalker?, as you can derigir it to his planeswalker to damage but can he contradict me that he does not want to? and making him take damage, just ask if my opponent can do that
The choice to redirect the damage to your opponent's planeswalker is yours, not your opponents. Your opponent can't stop you from redirecting that damage if you want.
Although Sorin's first ability can target only a "creature or player" (C.R. 114.1c), you can still cause damage to a planeswalker with that ability, under certain conditions.
More specifically, when Sorin's first ability resolves, if you targeted an opponent and you control Sorin, you can have Sorin deal 2 damage to a planeswalker that player controls instead of that player (C.R. 306.7).
EDIT (Apr. 27): See comment 13.
Let me explain it simply. Assume you control Sorin Markov and your opponent controls Chandra Nalaar, and no other players are in the game.
You activate Sorin's first ability and target your opponent (C.R. 602.2, 602.2b, 601.2c). All players pass in a row. The ability resolves and Sorin would deal 2 damage to your opponent (C.R. 116.4, 608.2c). You can now decide to have Sorin deal 2 damage to Chandra instead of to your opponent (C.R. 306.7).
Alternatively, you can activate Sorin's first ability and say that Sorin will deal 2 damage to Chandra (thus declaring a "shortcut"). If your opponent accepts this, Sorin will deal 2 damage to Chandra — the same result as the one given earlier (C.R. 719.2a-c). See also this thread.
EDIT (Apr. 27): See comment 13.
Hope that helps.
EDIT (Oct. 8, 2019): Add rule citation.